Originally Posted by Brother Hank
Something I been wondering for a while in Deutronomy 22 it says:
28If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found;
29Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.
Okay thats all fine n dandy but then Jugges 19:25 says:
But the men would not hearken to him: so the man took his concubine, and brought her forth unto them; and they knew her, and abused her all the night until the morning: and when the day began to spring, they let her go.
Then they do all these nasty things to this harlot coz she dies and gets carved up and all.
Now im not a real smart guy like a church pastar or nothing but if the first man who you know gave this harlot what she deserved didnt marry her and didnt pay the harlots owner 50 shekels then why didnt the owner collect 50 shekels from each in the other group of men? They used her didnt they? Why didnt they pay?
The second woman was a concubine. She had already been with men. Therefore they wouldn't have to pay the going rate for a virgin bride.
If they would have gone with the guy's daughter, (which they didn't) then the man could have charged the going rate for the virgin daughter (50 shekels).
Since the man freely offered up his maiden daughter, he would not be able to collect the $50 price for her maiden head.
Remember, in the rape scenario laid out in Deuteronomy 22, the girl is a virgin, who is not betrothed. Were she betrothed, then the man who did it would be an adulterer, and technically she would be too, as rape can't take place inside a city, so they would both be subject to stoning.
The marriage good faith, 50 shekel rule, only comes into effect when the man is paying for what he believes to be a virgin. If the man knows his wife is NOT a virgin, then it's a matter of haggling over her price.
Hope this helps.